Revision | Date | User | Action | Comment | World English Bible / Wiki English Translation | Undo |
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7 | Saturday, 15-Feb-2020 08:21:35 EST | Elissa Grace [Send Message] | Revision of 6 |
a * this is not the throat.. this is the windpipe/larynx where" VOWEL sounds are formed." Not insignificant since not a single "master of Israel" understood that Jesus was NOT speaking Greek when He quotes this verse in the aramaic based language... they hear Eli Eli and remarkably did NOT hear Jesus calling the name of God but, they understood Him as if He is speaking Greek Ηλι Ηλι (Elijah)... for some reason, when Jesus speaks the language we call "Hebrew-Aramaic" today, from the cross, the people in Jerusalem understood Him to be speaking GREEK. Hebrew-Aramaic continued to be a consonantal writting system (written as a vowel-less language) from the day the Jews carried it out of Babylonian captivity (see Deut 28:49 and Jeremiah 5:15) until at least the 5th century ad when the Massorets are credited with adding "vowel points" to affix meaning to the consonants, since vowel-less languages do not have any way to affix the sound of the word and therefore the meaning on their own; hence the refinements accomplished and introduced in the Massoretic Text of 1100AD.
Contrast this to Paul/ Luke's refrerence to the "Hebrew διαλεκτω", a dialect of what language, is not specified in Acts 22, when Paul is amongst an unfriendly crowd in Jerusalem. The chief captain hears Paul and asks; "canst thou speak Greek? Aren't you the Egyptian.?". and for some reason, when Paul continues and addresses the crowd, they hear Paul speak, apparently understand his "Hebrew dialect" , and they quiet even more..why did the Jews in Jerusalem understand this "Hebrew" dialect but not the Hebrew-Aramaic dragged out of Babylonian captivity? | ||
6 | Monday, 27-Jun-2016 17:01:06 EDT | Elissa Grace [Send Message] | Revision of 5 | spelling |
a * this is not the throat.. this is the windpipe/larynx where" VOWEL sounds are formed." Not insignificant since not a single "master of Israel" understood that Jesus was NOT speaking Greek when He quotes this verse in the aramaic based language w no vowels... they hear Eli Eli... and do not hear Jesus calling for God but understand Him as if He is speaking Greek Ηλι Ηλι (Elijah)... for some reason, when Jesus speaks the language we call "Hebrew-Aramaic" today, from the cross, no one in Jerusalem understood Him. Hebrew Aramaic continued to be a vowel-less language from the day the Jews carried it out of Babylonian captivity (see Deut 28:49 and Jeremiah 5:15) until at least the 5th century ad,the Massorets are credited with adding "vowel points" for meaning since vowel-less languages do not carry meaning on their own; hence the refinements accomplished and introduced in the Massoretic Text of 1100AD.
Contrast this to the "Hebrew" tongue not specified in Acts 22, when Paul is amongst a unfriendly crowd in Jerusalem, the chief captain hears Paul and asks; "canst thou speak Greek? Aren't you the Egyptian.?". and for some reason, when Paul continues and addresses the crowd, they hear him speak in an unspecified "Hebrew tongue" and quiet even more..why did the Jews in Jerusalem understand this "Hebrew" tongue but not our current understanding of it??? .do we have the right definition of what a 1st century Jew meant by "Hebrew"...?? | |
5 | Monday, 27-Jun-2016 16:45:16 EDT | Elissa Grace [Send Message] | Revision of 4 |
a * this is not the throat.. this is the windpipe/larynx where" VOWEL sounds are formed." Not insignificant since not a single "master of Israel" understood that Jesus was NOT speaking Greek when He quotes this verse in the aramaic based language w no vowels... they hear Eli Eli... and do not hear Jesus calling for God but understand Him as if He is speaking Greek Ηλι Ηλι (Elijah)... for some reason, when Jesus speaks the language we call "Hebrew-Aramaic" today, from the cross, no onein Jerusalem understood Him. Hebrew Aramaic continued to be a vowel-less language from the day the Jews csrried it our of Babylonian captivity (see Deut 28:49 and Jeremiah 5:15) until at least the 5th century ad,the Masorets are credited with adding "vowels" in the Masoretic Text of 1100AD. Comtrast this to the "Hebrew" tongue not specified in Acts 22, when Paul is amongst a unfriendly crowd in Jerusalem, the chief captain hears Paul and asks; "canst thou speak Greek? Aren't you the Egyptian.?". and for some reason, when Paul continues and addresses the crowd, they hear him speak in an unspecified "Hebrew tongue" and quiet even more..why did the Jews in Jeruslaem understand this "Hebrew" tongue but not our current understanidng of it??? .do we have the right defintion of what a 1st century Jew meant by "Hebrew"...?? | ||
4 | Sunday, 14-Jun-2009 00:03:47 EDT | tmoore1008 [Send Message] | Revision of 3 |
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3 | Saturday, 13-Jun-2009 15:53:50 EDT | tmoore1008 [Send Message] | Revision of 1 |
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2 | Saturday, 13-Jun-2009 15:45:00 EDT | tmoore1008 [Send Message] | Revision of 1 |
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1 | Saturday, 13-Jun-2009 15:39:09 EDT | tmoore1008 [Send Message] | NEW |
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