^a the verb "ask" έρωτήσετε in the first half of this verse is distinct from the verb "ask" αιτήσητε in the second. Per Trench's Synonyms of the New Testament "everyone competent to judge is agreed that "ye shall ask" of the first half of the verse has nothing to do with the "ye shall ask" of the second; that in the first Christ is referring back to ver. 19 to the questions which the disciples would fain have asked of Him..would have gladly resolved if only they dared...... (in the KJV translation) There is not in this verse a contrast drawn between asking the Son, which shall cease, and asking the Father which shall begin; but the first half of the verse closes the declaration of one blessing, namely that hereafter they shall be so taught by the Spirit as to have nothing further to inquire; the second half of the verse begins the declaration of a NEW blessing that whatever they shall seek from the Father in the Son's name, He will give it to them."